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DOH · DHA · MOH — Internal Medicine Specialist

DOH, DHA & MOH Internal Medicine Specialist Exam Questions

Practice questions for the UAE internal medicine specialist licensing exams (DOH, DHA and MOH Prometric), each with the full clinical reasoning behind the answer. Authored by an MRCP-qualified doctor who has sat the exam.

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Q1 Nephrology

A 34-year-old man with a 10-year history of intravenous heroin use presents with a serum creatinine of 220 µmol/L, which has risen progressively over the past 3 years. Urine dipstick shows 2+ proteinuria and no haematuria; urine protein-to-creatinine ratio is 250 mg/mmol. Blood pressure is 148/94 mmHg. HIV and hepatitis B/C serologies are negative. What is the most likely underlying cause of his renal deterioration?

  • A Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
  • B Amyloidosis (AA type)
  • C Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis
  • D Chronic pyelonephritis
  • E IgA nephropathy
Model answer + full explanation

Heroin-associated nephropathy (HAN) classically presents as FSGS — the correct answer — characterised by progressive proteinuria (often nephrotic-range), gradual decline in GFR, and an absence of haematuria unless a superimposed nephritic process exists. Light microscopy shows focal and segmental sclerosis with hyalinosis; electron microscopy demonstrates diffuse podocyte foot-process effacement. FSGS is also associated with HIV, sickle cell disease, obesity, and reflux nephropathy (KDIGO Glomerular Diseases Guidelines 2021). AA amyloidosis (B) can complicate chronic heroin use due to recurrent skin infections and abscess formation causing sustained acute-phase response, but typically presents with nephrotic-range proteinuria and enlarged echogenic kidneys — a plausible but less common cause. Mesangiocapillary GN (C) and IgA nephropathy (D) typically feature haematuria. Chronic pyelonephritis (E) causes tubular defects and scarring rather than significant proteinuria. Clinical pearl: always check HIV status in IVDU with FSGS, as HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN) is a distinct collapsing variant requiring antiretroviral therapy as primary treatment.

Q2 Dermatology

A 32-year-old woman at 34 weeks gestation presents with a 2-week history of intense pruritus affecting the palms and soles, worse at night. She has no visible rash. Investigations reveal serum bile acids 45 µmol/L, ALT 60 IU/L, and normal bilirubin. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects both the diagnosis and the primary fetal risk associated with this condition?

  • A Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy; associated with mild neonatal thrombocytopenia but no increased risk of stillbirth
  • B Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy; associated with an increased risk of stillbirth, particularly when serum bile acids exceed 40 µmol/L
  • C Atopic eruption of pregnancy; associated with a small but significant risk of neonatal atopy but no hepatic involvement
  • D Pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (PUPPP); associated with preterm labour but no elevation in fetal mortality
Model answer + full explanation

This presentation is classic for intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP): pruritus predominating on palms and soles, no primary rash, elevated serum bile acids (≥10 µmol/L diagnostic; ≥40 µmol/L high-risk threshold), and mildly elevated transaminases. Per RCOG Green-top Guideline No. 43 (2022), bile acids ≥40 µmol/L are associated with significantly increased risk of stillbirth, spontaneous preterm birth, and meconium-stained liquor. Management includes ursodeoxycholic acid for symptom relief, serial bile acid and LFT monitoring, and planned delivery at 37–38 weeks for bile acids >40 µmol/L. The other options describe conditions without hepatic involvement or elevated bile acids: PUPPP (urticarial plaques on abdomen, benign), atopic eruption (eczematous, no LFT changes), and polymorphic eruption (self-limiting, no fetal risk). Pearl: serum bile acids, not bilirubin or ALT, are the key diagnostic and prognostic marker in ICP.

Q3 Endocrinology

A 62-year-old Emirati man with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to his endocrinology clinic for a routine follow-up. His current medications include metformin 1000 mg twice daily and gliclazide MR 60 mg once daily. His HbA1c is 7.4%, fasting glucose is 6.8 mmol/L, and BMI is 29.5 kg/m². He reports no episodes of dizziness or syncope. His renal function and liver enzymes are within normal limits. Which of the following adverse effects is he most likely to experience as a result of his gliclazide therapy?

  • A Peripheral neuropathy
  • B Cholestasis
  • C Photosensitivity
  • D Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
  • E Weight gain
Model answer + full explanation

Weight gain (E) is the most common clinically significant adverse effect of sulfonylureas, including gliclazide. Sulfonylureas stimulate pancreatic beta-cell insulin secretion independently of ambient blood glucose, producing a sustained anabolic state that promotes glucose uptake and adipogenesis. This is a well-recognised management consideration when choosing therapy in overweight or obese patients with type 2 diabetes (ADA Standards of Care 2024, Section 9; NICE NG28). Hypoglycaemia is the other major adverse effect. Peripheral neuropathy (A) is a complication of diabetes itself, not gliclazide. Cholestasis (B), photosensitivity (C), and SIADH (D) are rare, idiosyncratic class effects of sulfonylureas — recognised but uncommon compared to weight gain, which affects a substantial proportion of users. Clinical pearl: When initiating sulfonylureas in patients who are already overweight, consider the weight trajectory and discuss the risk explicitly, as per ADA 2024 shared decision-making recommendations.

Q4 Haematology

A 68-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of lower back pain and fatigue. He has had two chest infections in the past 4 months requiring antibiotics. On examination, he appears pale. Investigations show: Hb 8.8 g/dL, calcium 11.9 mg/dL, creatinine 2.1 mg/dL, total protein 10.8 g/dL, albumin 3.1 g/dL, β2-microglobulin elevated. Serum protein electrophoresis reveals an IgG kappa M-protein of 42 g/L. Whole-body low-dose CT shows multiple lytic lesions in the thoracic vertebrae and pelvis. Bone marrow biopsy is performed. Which single finding on bone marrow examination is required to confirm the diagnosis of multiple myeloma?

  • A Clonal plasma cells comprising ≥10% of nucleated marrow cells
  • B Bilobed lymphocytes with prominent nucleoli in a background of reactive infiltrate
  • C Myeloblasts >20% with Auer rods on myeloperoxidase staining
  • D Erythroid precursors with perinuclear iron granules comprising ≥15% of erythroblasts
Model answer + full explanation

Per IMWG diagnostic criteria (reaffirmed in NCCN Multiple Myeloma v2.2025), multiple myeloma is confirmed by clonal bone marrow plasma cells ≥10% (or biopsy-proven plasmacytoma) together with one or more CRAB criteria or a myeloma-defining event (e.g. >60% clonal plasma cells, serum FLC ratio ≥100). This patient fulfils all four CRAB features: hyperCalcaemia (Ca 11.9 mg/dL), Renal insufficiency (creatinine 2.1 mg/dL), Anaemia (Hb 8.8 g/dL), and Bone lesions (lytic lesions on CT). The clonal plasma cell threshold ≥10% is therefore the confirmatory bone marrow finding. Option B describes features of Hodgkin lymphoma (Reed-Sternberg cells). Option C describes AML with maturation. Option D describes myelodysplastic syndrome with ring sideroblasts (MDS-RS). Pearl: clonality must be demonstrated (κ/λ light-chain restriction by immunohistochemistry or flow cytometry); hypercellular marrow alone is insufficient.

Q5 Rheumatology

A 59-year-old woman with a 14-year history of seropositive rheumatoid arthritis (RF and anti-CCP positive) presents with recurrent bacterial skin infections over the past six months. On examination she has active synovitis in multiple MCP and PIP joints and a palpable spleen 4 cm below the left costal margin. Investigations: WBC 1.7 × 10⁹/L, ANC 0.9 × 10⁹/L, haemoglobin 10.2 g/dL, platelets 148 × 10⁹/L, CRP 42 mg/L. Which of the following best describes this clinical syndrome?

  • A Adult-onset Still's disease
  • B Felty syndrome
  • C Caplan syndrome
  • D Large granular lymphocyte syndrome
  • E Primary Sjögren's syndrome with systemic overlap
Model answer + full explanation

Felty syndrome is defined by the triad of seropositive rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly, and neutropaenia (ANC <2.0 × 10⁹/L, often <0.5 × 10⁹/L in severe cases). It occurs in fewer than 1% of RA patients, typically after ≥10 years of active, seropositive disease, and confers markedly increased susceptibility to bacterial infections — the clinical scenario here. Management per EULAR 2022 RA recommendations includes optimisation of DMARDs (methotrexate first-line), G-CSF for severe or symptomatic neutropaenia, and splenectomy reserved for refractory cases. Adult-onset Still's disease presents with quotidian fever, rash, and arthritis in a younger patient without established RA. Caplan syndrome describes pulmonary nodules in RA patients with pneumoconiosis. Large granular lymphocyte (LGL) syndrome can mimic Felty syndrome with neutropaenia and splenomegaly but is driven by a clonal LGL expansion — an important differential to exclude. Primary Sjögren's overlap does not cause this specific triad. Clinical pearl: Felty syndrome shares the HLA-DR4 haplotype with seropositive RA and can occur even when joint disease is quiescent.

Topics covered in this bank

  • Nephrology
  • Dermatology
  • Endocrinology
  • Haematology
  • Rheumatology

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Specialist and GP tracks

Separate banks for Internal Medicine Specialist and General Practitioner candidates across DOH, DHA and MOH Prometric exams.

Frequently asked questions

Are these the actual DOH or DHA exam questions?

No. These are original practice questions modelled on the style and clinical level of the DOH, DHA and MOH internal medicine specialist exams. They are written to teach the reasoning the exams test, not copied from any official paper.

Who writes the questions?

Every question is authored and reviewed by an MRCP-qualified physician who has personally sat the DOH licensing exam.

Do the questions come with explanations?

Yes. Each question includes a full explanation covering why the correct answer is right, why each distractor is wrong, and the guideline or trial it is based on.

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Yes. There are separate banks for Internal Medicine Specialist and General Practitioner candidates across DOH, DHA and MOH.

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